06-04-2010, 01:17 AM
ok. but this not fully answered [indeed it reflects back on the question, but let us proceed]
what is being violated when you have the 'right to know' & the 'right not to know' [as equivalences]?
why is a bias set? and what are its prerequisites granting it this status?
what is being violated when you have the 'right to know' & the 'right not to know' [as equivalences]?
why is a bias set? and what are its prerequisites granting it this status?