06-04-2010, 03:09 AM
(06-04-2010, 01:17 AM)Rama Wrote: ok. but this not fully answered [indeed it reflects back on the question, but let us proceed]
what is being violated when you have the 'right to know' & the 'right not to know' [as equivalences]?
why is a bias set? and what are its prerequisites granting it this status?
Lets say it is your right to know as well as your right not to know.
Your right to know and not to know are balanced by each other until you ask a question.