03-13-2012, 06:04 PM
Do not ideas have to exist a priori to mind in order for mind to have them as a part of itself? In order for an idea to be a thought, must it not be observable? What I am getting at is that although perceptible reality as we experience it does indeed consist of thought-forms, thought is not the end all of the process. One could say "It's all in the mind", and they would be both correct and incorrect. Mind, in this way, is also limited by the mind's conception of mind. Therefore, there must be realities anterior to thought. Mind is something that comes out of consciousness, Mind is the world of Ideas, but Ideas are not the entirety of mind. Also, Mind is still not Spirit, for Spirit is something which moves Mind, and it is still not the Body, which is that which the Mind and Spirit express through.
To suggest that existence is a product of the mind is to suggest that the mind is a product of itself. This is true, in a way, but it does not take in to account all the necessary considerations of process. One could possibly benefit from divorcing the concepts of "Mind" and "Thought", for there is more in the Deep Mind than simply thought.
You are referring to the WORD "exist". Yes, that belongs to mind. Yet, the FACT of existence, is something that the Mind only perceives.
To suggest that existence is a product of the mind is to suggest that the mind is a product of itself. This is true, in a way, but it does not take in to account all the necessary considerations of process. One could possibly benefit from divorcing the concepts of "Mind" and "Thought", for there is more in the Deep Mind than simply thought.
You are referring to the WORD "exist". Yes, that belongs to mind. Yet, the FACT of existence, is something that the Mind only perceives.
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